TheOneWithTheHair@lemmy.world to Lemmy Shitpost@lemmy.worldEnglish · 1 year agoA good deal of IT work, toolemmy.worldimagemessage-square130fedilinkarrow-up11.29Karrow-down141
arrow-up11.24Karrow-down1imageA good deal of IT work, toolemmy.worldTheOneWithTheHair@lemmy.world to Lemmy Shitpost@lemmy.worldEnglish · 1 year agomessage-square130fedilink
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down11·1 year ago“Before” is not implied.
minus-square0xD@infosec.publinkfedilinkarrow-up2arrow-down1·1 year agoLooks like everyone but you understood it correctly - maybe you should brush up on your language comprehension skills?
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down5·1 year agoMaybe y’all could try having a sense of humor about things.
minus-squareℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃@pawb.sociallinkfedilinkarrow-up4arrow-down1·1 year agoTake an English class, I’m sure YouTube has a good video explaining it (basically there are different “degrees” of past tense, did / had done etc.)
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down10·1 year agoIt’s still not implicit just because you inferred it.
minus-squareTheFriendlyDickhead@lemm.eelinkfedilinkarrow-up4arrow-down1·1 year agoWell the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down5·1 year agoNo, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.
minus-squareℛ𝒶𝓋ℯ𝓃@pawb.sociallinkfedilinkarrow-up2arrow-down1·1 year agoIn the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down3·1 year agoHe stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.
minus-squaresaigot@lemmy.calinkfedilinkarrow-up2arrow-down1·edit-21 year agoNo native English speaker would say it like that. You’d say “doing something I never even did”.
minus-squareSpaceNoodle@lemmy.worldlinkfedilinkarrow-up1arrow-down2·edit-21 year agoNo native English speaker would say it like you said.
“Before” is not implied.
It is
Nope.
Looks like everyone but you understood it correctly - maybe you should brush up on your language comprehension skills?
Maybe y’all could try having a sense of humor about things.
Take an English class, I’m sure YouTube has a good video explaining it (basically there are different “degrees” of past tense, did / had done etc.)
It’s still not implicit just because you inferred it.
Well the word “before” doesn’t need to implicit. The “had” in I’d is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense
No, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.
In the English language, an action I “had done” is before an action I “did.” It’s a grammatical case, not an inference.
He stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.
No native English speaker would say it like that. You’d say “doing something I never even did”.
No native English speaker would say it like you said.