• ThatFembyWho@lemmy.blahaj.zone
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    11
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    1 year ago

    I’m not sure how historically accurate that is. I mean, Hitler was appointed, not elected right? NSDAP members were elected, that is how a parliamentary system works.

    Also the 1933 German elections were the result of a massive campaign of violence and intimidation against opposition parties and voters. I would hardly call that “duly elected”.

    Think of it as like: if we had 100x as many Proud Boys in the US, and they were posted at every polling location to decide who gets to vote or not…

    • hanekam@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      1 year ago

      In a US style first past the post system the Nazis would have made a clean sweep in July 1932, and wouldn’t have had to intimidate anybody

    • Lobotomie@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      ·
      edit-2
      1 year ago

      It’s complicated but basically the chancellor (not nsdap) selected hitler as a way of trying to give him some power (because nsdap was still the biggest party after the 1932 election) so he’s happy but not enough where he could get out of control.

      Spoiler alert it went out of control.