How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

  • tetris11@lemmy.ml
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    1 month ago

    Isnt this a stupid example though, because obviously if you remove all penguins from the zoo, you’re not going to see any penguins

    • untorquer@lemmy.world
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      1 month ago

      The explanation is misdirecting because yes they’re removing the penguins from the zoo. But they also interpreted the question as to if the zoo had infinite non-repeating exhibits whether it would NECESSARILY contain penguins. So all they had to show was that the penguins weren’t necessary.

      By tying the example to pi they seemed to be trying to show something about pi. I don’t think that was the intention.

      • juliebean@lemm.ee
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        1 month ago

        i just figured using pi was an easy way to acquire a known irrational number, not trying to make any special point about it.

        • untorquer@lemmy.world
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          1 month ago

          Yeah i got confused too and saw someone else have the same distraction.

          It makes sense why you chose that.

          This kind of thing messed me up so much in school 😂

    • Lanthanae@lemmy.blahaj.zone
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      1 month ago

      Its not stupid. To disprove a claim that states “All X have Y” then you only need ONE example. So, as pick a really obvious example.

      • Umbrias@beehaw.org
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        1 month ago

        it’s not a good example because you’ve only changed the symbolic representation and not the numerical value. the op’s question is identical when you convert to binary. thir is not a counterexample and does not prove anything.

        • orcrist@lemm.ee
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          1 month ago

          Please read it all again. They didn’t rely on the conversion. It’s just a convenient way to create a counterexample.

          Anyway, here’s a simple equivalent. Let’s consider a number like pi except that wherever pi has a 9, this new number has a 1. This new number is infinite and doesn’t repeat. So it also answers the original question.

          • Umbrias@beehaw.org
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            1 month ago

            “please consider a number that isnt pi” so not relevant, gotcha. it does not answer the original question, this new number is not normal, sure, but that has no bearing on if pi is normal.

            • spireghost@lemmy.zip
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              1 month ago

              The question is

              Since pi is infinite and non-repeating, would it mean…

              Then the answer is mathematically, no. If X is infinite and non-repeating it doesn’t.

              If a number is normal, infinite, and non-repeating, then yes.

              To answer the real question “Does any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers appear somewhere in Pi?”

              The answer depends on if Pi is normal or not, but not necessarily